Question remains if he was seized during a full moon. Is it stated elsewhere in the bible?
Historian Julius Africanus (who lived in the 3rd century) comments: (this was in the article I linked to before btw)
<i>"This darkness Thallus, in the third book of his History, calls, as it appears to me without reason, an eclipse of the sun. For the Hebrews celebrate the passover on the 14th day according to the moon, and the passion of our Savior falls on the day before the passover; but an eclipse of the sun takes place only when the moon comes under the sun. And it cannot happen at any other time but in the interval between the first day of the new moon and the last of the old, that is, at their junction: how then should an eclipse occur when the moon is almost diametrically opposite the sun?"</i>
This is important for several reasons. Firstly, Thallus was a Roman historian (ie not Christian) who wrote approximately 50AD-100AD, though his works have been lost. This reference is one of the verifications outside of the Bible that the darkness really occured. Secondly, Julius Africanus explains exactly why an eclipse could not have occurred as the author of the site linked above suggests.
The author of the eclipse article seems to assume that because the priests didn't want to have Jesus crucified during the Feast of Unleavened Bread, that He was crucified <i>afterwards</i>. But that has (like the 38AD dating of His crucifixion) never been the belief of the church; Jesus was in fact crucified the day before the Feast would have begun. Namely, on Passover. There reason He happened to be crucified then was (theologically speaking) as a replacement to the passover lamb which used to be sacrificed on that day; Jesus being the final and permanent Passover sacrifice. (The Pharisees of course would not have seen it that way!) The idea that Jesus sat around for a week before being crucified therefore makes no sense, and has never been suggested by anyone in history (AFAIK) for these reasons.
(So, to answer the question directly: Passover always falls on a full moon. So yes! Therefore there couldn't have been an eclipse; I guess the eclipse article author came up with his scheme because he believed the darkness must be an eclipse and therefore had to move not only the day but also the year Jesus was crucified to make it fit.)
Anyways, as expected, this conversation has gone off on an esoteric tangent. I'd rather keep this thread to issues that everyone can participate in.